CBSE Class 10 Social Science 2026 — Set 4

Questions in this 2026 Social Science paper (Set 4)

All 38 questions from this set, exactly as asked. Try each one, then open the question-paper PDF above for the complete paper.

1. 1.
   Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option: I. Second Round Table Conference II. Formation of Depressed Class Association III. Lahore Session of Indian National Congress IV. Formation of Awadh Kissan Sabha

   • (a) I, II, IV, III
   • (b) I, II, III, IV
   • (c) IV, III, II, I
   • (d) IV, III, I, II
2. 2.
   Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Silver from Peru and Mexico enhanced Europe's wealth in the sixteenth century. Reason (R): Europe used this silver to finance its trade with Asia.

   • (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
   • (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but…
3. 3.
   The given painting is from the sixteenth century from Mughal India. Identify the work shown in this painting from the following options:

   • (a) Minting of coins
   • (b) Metal crafting
   • (c) Pottery making
   • (d) Book making
4. 4.
   Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? Column A (Writer) – Column B (Contribution)

   • (a) Ram Chaddha – Bengal Gazette
   • (b) Gangadhar Bhattacharya – Kesari
   • (c) Jyotiba Phule – Gulamgiri
   • (d) Rashsundari Devi – Padmarg
5. 5.
   "Food offered many examples of long distance cultural exchange during pre-modern times." Explain the statement with any two examples.
6. 6.
   Evaluate the role of print in the French Revolution.
7. 7.
   Describe the process of unification of Germany.
8. 8 (1).
   Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow: Quit India Movement The failure of the Cripps Mission and the effects of World War II created widespread discontentment in India. This led Gandhiji to launch a movement calling for complete withdrawal of the British from India. The Congress Working Committee, in its meeting in Wardha on 14 July 1942, passed the historic 'Quit…
9. 8 (2).
   (Source: Quit India Movement) 8.2 Why was Gandhiji's call for 'the Quit India' considered historic?
10. 8 (3).
    (Source: Quit India Movement) 8.3 Explain the role of women in making the Quit India Movement more inclusive.
11. 9 (a).
    Two places 'A' and 'B' have been marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them: A. The place where Gandhiji broke the Salt Law.
12. 9 (b).
    (Map) B. The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held.
13. 10.
    Read the given infographics carefully and choose the correct option that identifies the soil described. (1) Sandy in texture (2) Red to brown in colour (3) Soil lacks humus due to dry climate

    • (a) Laterite soil
    • (b) Forest soil
    • (c) Arid soil
    • (d) Black soil
14. 11.
    In which of the following regions did the "Beej-Bachao Andolan" of farmers begin?

    • (a) Kumaon
    • (b) Tehri
    • (c) Almora
    • (d) Chamoli
15. 12.
    Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: Column I (National Park): a. Corbett, b. Sunderban, c. Sariska, d. Periyar Column II (States): i. Rajasthan, ii. Uttarakhand, iii. Kerala, iv. West Bengal

    • (a) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
    • (b) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
    • (c) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
    • (d) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
16. 13.
    Choose the correct option to fill in the blank (mineral classification based on the diagram):

    • (a) Non-metallic
    • (b) Metallic
    • (c) Precious
    • (d) Energy
17. 14.
    In which of the following categories of 'land-use' has India registered an increase?

    • (a) Permanent pasture
    • (b) Unsuitable for agriculture
    • (c) Barren
    • (d) Forest
18. 15.
    Which one of the following crops grows well in hot and humid climate?

    • (a) Sugarcane
    • (b) Peas
    • (c) Wheat
    • (d) Gram
19. 16.
    If every farmer in India follows modern farming practices, explain any two positive changes this could bring to villages.
20. 17.
    Examine the role of petroleum as an important source of energy and describe its distribution in India. (3+2=5)
21. 18 (1).
    Read the given source and answer the questions that follow: Sardar Sarovar Project Sardar Sarovar Dam has been built over the Narmada river in Gujarat. This is one of the largest water resources projects of India covering four states – Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan. The Sardar Sarovar Project would meet the requirement of water in drought prone and desert areas. Sardar…
22. 18 (2).
    (Source: Sardar Sarovar Project) 18.2 Why is Sardar Sarovar Project designed to cover four states?
23. 18 (3).
    (Source: Sardar Sarovar Project) 18.3 In what ways does this project promote sustainability?
24. 19 (i).
    (Map-Skill / VI, in lieu of Q. No. 19 — attempt any three) (i) Name the dam built on River Chenab in India.
25. 19 (ii).
    (VI, in lieu of Q. No. 19) (ii) Name the place where nuclear power plant is located in Maharashtra.
26. 19 (iii).
    (VI, in lieu of Q. No. 19) (iii) Name the place where software technology park is located in Tamil Nadu.
27. 19 (iv).
    (VI, in lieu of Q. No. 19) (iv) Name the place where international airport is located in Punjab.
28. 20.
    Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): The civil war in Sri Lanka resulted due to failure of political accommodation of ethnicity. Reason (R): The distrust between the Sinhala and Tamil communities turned into widespread conflict in Sri Lanka. (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)…
29. 21.
    Look at the given picture carefully and choose the most appropriate option: Which of the following is a strength of democracy highlighted in the cartoon?

    • (a) Avoidance of social conflicts.
    • (b) Quick decision-making
    • (c) Concentration of power with one
    • (d) Thinking accommodation of various demands.
30. 22.
    Find the odd one out from the following:

    • (a) Communist Party of India (M) & Bharatiya Janata Party
    • (b) Rashtriya Janata Dal & Janata Dal
    • (c) Nationalist Congress Party & Shiv Sena
    • (d) United Democratic Party & National People's Party
31. 23.
    Read the given statements regarding decentralisation in India and choose the correct option: i. Rural local government is known as Panchayati Raj. ii. Each village or group of villages have Gram Panchayat. iii. Panch and Sarpanch of villages are selected by Election Commission. iv. Panchayat works under the supervision of Gram Sabha.

    • (a) only i, iii and iv are correct.
    • (b) only i, ii and iv are…
32. 24.
    Suggest any two ways to promote Women's Entrepreneurship in the economy.
33. 25.
    Differentiate between democracy and dictatorship.
34. 26.
    How does the Indian Constitution define the distribution of powers between the centre and the states? Explain with examples.
35. 27.
    Examine the role of political parties in a democracy.
36. 28 (1).
    Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow: Power Sharing Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary. Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can…
37. 28 (2).
    (Source: Power Sharing) 28.2 Why is the judiciary considered independent in a democracy?
38. 28 (3).
    (Source: Power Sharing) 28.3 How is power shared among different organs of government?
39. 29.
    Study the given data carefully and answer the question that follows: Monthly income of citizens (in ₹): Country A: I 9,500; II 10,500; III 9,800; IV 1,000; V 10,200 Country B: I 500; II 500; III 500; IV 500; V 4,800 Identify the average monthly income of citizens in 'country A'.

    • (a) 8,200
    • (b) 9,000
    • (c) 1,000
    • (d) 9,020
40. 30.
    Identify the sector of the economy on the basis of ownership with the help of following information: • The government owns most of the assets. • Delivery of services in the hands of government. • Fair price shops is an example of it.

    • (a) Private Sector
    • (b) Public Sector
    • (c) Joint Sector
    • (d) Cooperative Sector
41. 31.
    Read the given case and choose the correct option: Swapna, a small farmer grows groundnut on her three acres of land. She takes a loan from the moneylender to meet the expenses of cultivation but midway due to flood, crop fails and her debt increased. Again she has to take loan to manage crops. Suggest Swapna, which of the following sources of loan would be suitable for her. (a) Friends (b)…
42. 32.
    The removal of barriers on foreign trade and investment by the Indian government has been called as:

    • (a) Industrialisation
    • (b) Nationalisation
    • (c) Privatisation
    • (d) Liberalisation
43. 33.
    Which of the following reports compare countries using health, education and per capita income?

    • (a) Human Development Report
    • (b) Global Trade Report
    • (c) World Development Report
    • (d) Economic Survey Report
44. 34.
    Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: Net attendance ratio is expressed as a ________ of total children in the age group of 6 – 10 years attending school.

    • (a) Ratio
    • (b) Percentage
    • (c) Fraction
    • (d) Index
45. 35.
    "New technology has helped to connect the world." Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
46. 36.
    Explain the role of Reserve Bank of India in the Indian economy.
47. 37.
    Analyse the issues that necessitate sustainable development for the future.
48. 38.
    How are primary sectors different from secondary sectors? Explain with examples. (5)

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How to use these papers

1. 1Start chapter-wise early in the year — solve only the Social Science questions from a chapter you have just finished.
2. 2Switch to full timed papers 2–3 months before the exam: one complete set in the real time limit, no notes.
3. 3Self-mark against the marking scheme, then fix every mistake with our free NCERT solutions.
4. 4Re-attempt your weakest chapters until the recurring question types feel routine.

CBSE Class 10 Social Science 2026 paper — FAQ