CBSE Class 10 Science 2026 — Set 4

Questions in this 2026 Science paper (Set 4)

All 45 questions from this set, exactly as asked. Try each one, then open the question-paper PDF above for the complete paper.

1. 1.
   Observe the given figure and select the statement that correctly states how these fungi obtain nutrition.

   • (a) By eating the bread on which it is growing.
   • (b) By using nutrients from the bread to prepare their own food.
   • (c) By breaking down the nutrients of bread outside the body and then absorbing them.
   • (d) By allowing other organisms to grow on the bread and then consuming them.
2. 2.
   If the part 'P' of the flower is removed, which of the following processes will not take place ?

   • (a) Formation of pollens
   • (b) Formation of flower
   • (c) Formation of fruit
   • (d) Formation of seed
3. 3.
   Given below are some of the statements regarding our environment :

   • (i) Change in our life-styles have resulted in greater amounts of waste material generation.
   • (ii) Changes in attitude have resulted in use of more disposable things.
   • (iii) Changes in packaging has resulted in much of our waste becoming non-biodegradable.
   • (iv) Organic farming. Which amongst these is not leading to any damage of…
4. 4.
   Identify the traits that cannot be transmitted from parents to the off-springs :

   • (i) Swimming technique
   • (ii) Blood group
   • (iii) Eye colour
   • (iv) Dancing skills
   • (a) (i) and
   • (ii) (b)
   • (i) and
   • (iv) (c)
   • (iii) and
   • (iv) (d)
   • (ii) and (iii)
5. 5.
   Following are the statements about the different parts of the brain. Select the correct statements.

   • (i) The thinking part of the brain is the forebrain.
   • (ii) Centres for smell, hearing, memory, sight are located in forebrain.
   • (iii) Salivation, vomiting, blood pressure are controlled by medulla in the hind brain.
   • (iv) Cerebellum does not control the posture and balance of the body.
   • (a) (i), (ii)…
6. 6.
   Two pea plants, one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds were crossed with each other which produced F1 progeny that have only round yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are self-pollinated, the F2 progeny will have which new combination of characters, as compared to the parents :

   • (i) Round, yellow
   • (ii) Round, green
   • (iii) Wrinkled, yellow
   • (iv) Wrinkled…
7. 7.
   In human beings the oxygen rich blood is pumped out to the body by :

   • (a) contraction of right atrium
   • (b) relaxation of left ventricle
   • (c) contraction of right ventricle
   • (d) contraction of left ventricle
8. 8.
   Assertion (A) : Variations are not often seen in off-springs produced by asexual reproduction. Reason (R) : DNA molecule generated by replication is not similar to the original DNA. Select the appropriate option: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the…
9. 9.
   Assertion (A) : Highest percentage of pesticides is found in tertiary consumers in a food chain. Reason (R) : Chemicals / pesticides get accumulated progressively at each trophic level. Select the appropriate option: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not…
10. 10.
    "Transpiration in plants is a necessary evil." Comment on the statement giving two reasons.
11. 11.
    Explain why food chains generally consist of three or four steps.
12. 12.
    Varun is diabetic. His latest ultrasound reports showed a blockage in his pancreatic duct. How will this affect the dual functioning of the pancreas ?
13. 13.
    Give reasons for the following :

    • (a) Adrenal gland is known as the stress gland of the body.
    • (b) Prenatal sex determination is banned in India.
    • (c) Vegetative propagation is advantageous in some plants.
14. 14.
    Study the given table and answer the following questions : Parents — A pea plant with red flowers was crossed with a pea plant with white flowers. F1 — 30 seeds were sown and all bore plants with red flowers. F2 — 44 seeds were sown, 33 plants bore red flowers and 11 plants bore white flowers.

    • (a) Depict the information given in the table in the form of a cross.
    • (b) Deduce the F2 phenotypic…
15. 15.
    Plants exhibit movements in response to various environmental stimuli to adopt and survive in their surroundings. These movements, influenced by external factors such as light, gravity, water and chemicals are regulated by specific plant hormones. For example, the differential growth of plant parts allows them to bend, grow or orient themselves in particular directions. Roots and shoots often…
16. 16.
    What role does auxin play in the growth of plants ?
17. 17.
    Differentiate between movement shown by the sensitive plant and tropic movement by plants (Two points).
18. 17 (b).
    (A)

    • (a) Draw a labelled diagram showing open and closed stomatal pore.
    • (b) List the main events that occur during the process of photosynthesis.
    • (c) Write a balanced chemical equation showing photosynthesis in plants.
19. 18.
    The volume ratio of hydrogen and oxygen gases liberated during electrolysis of water is

    • (a) 1 : 1
    • (b) 2 : 1
    • (c) 4 : 1
    • (d) 1 : 2
20. 19.
    C6H12O6(aq) + 6O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(l). The above reaction is an example of -

    • (a) Displacement Reaction
    • (b) Endothermic Reaction
    • (c) Exothermic Reaction
    • (d) Neutralisation Reaction
21. 20.
    An aqueous solution turns red litmus blue. Excess addition of which of the following solution would reverse the change ?

    • (a) Sodium hydroxide
    • (b) Hydrochloric acid
    • (c) Baking soda
    • (d) Slaked lime
22. 21.
    While washing dirty clothes by soap, micelles are formed. Select the correct statement about micelles.

    • (a) The hydrophobic tail of the soap molecule is in the interior of the cluster, whereas hydrophilic end is on the surface of the cluster.
    • (b) The hydrophobic tail is on the surface of the cluster, whereas hydrophilic end is in the interior of cluster.
    • (c) Both hydrophobic tail and hydrophilic…
23. 22.
    Which one of the following metals does not react with cold water ?

    • (a) Sodium
    • (b) Potassium
    • (c) Calcium
    • (d) Magnesium
24. 23.
    Alloys are homogeneous mixture of metal with a metal or non-metal. Which among the following alloys contain non-metal as one of its constituents ?

    • (a) Brass
    • (b) Bronze
    • (c) Amalgam
    • (d) Steel
25. 24.
    How will you protect yourself from the heat generated while diluting a concentrated acid ?

    • (a) By adding acid to water with constant stirring.
    • (b) By adding water to acid with constant stirring.
    • (c) By adding water to acid followed by base.
    • (d) By adding base to acid with constant stirring.
26. 25.
    Assertion (A) : Pure ethanoic acid is also known as glacial acetic acid. Reason (R) : Pure ethanoic acid often freezes during winter due to its low melting point of 290 K. Select the appropriate option: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct…
27. 26.
    (a) A compound 'A' is used in soda-lime fire-extinguisher and decomposes on heating to form compound 'B'. Compound 'B' is used for removing permanent hardness of water. Identify 'A' and 'B'.
28. 27.
    (b) Write chemical formula of Plaster of Paris. At what temperature gypsum is heated to obtain Plaster of Paris ?
29. 28.
    Account for the following :

    • (a) White silver chloride turns grey when exposed to sunlight.
    • (b) Lead (II) nitrate on heating releases brown fumes.
    • (c) Bags of oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen gas.
30. 29.
    (A)

    • (i) Which method will be used to convert each of them to their respective metal oxides ?
    • (a) Carbonate ore
    • (b) Sulphide ore
    • (ii) Write a chemical reaction to illustrate the use of aluminium for joining cracked railway tracks.
    • (iii) During extraction of metals, electrolytic refining is used to obtain pure metals. Which material will be used as anode and cathode for the refining of copper…
31. 30.
    The pH plays an important role in our daily life. Strength of acids and bases depends on the number of H+ ions and OH– ions produced by these respectively. pH scale helps in predicting the strength of acids and bases by measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a solution. Answer the following : (a) What type of indicator is used to predict how strong an acid or base is ?
32. 31.
    Three solutions A, B and C showed pH as 3, 5 and 7. Which solution has the highest concentration of H+ ions ?
33. 32.
    What are strong acids and weak acids ?
34. 33.
    (A)

    • (i) Carbon cannot form C4+ cation and C4– anion. Explain.
    • (ii) Define homologous series of carbon compounds. Why are the melting and boiling points of C4H10 higher than C3H8 or C2H6 ?
    • (iii) What happens when ethanol is heated with acidified potassium dichromate ?
35. 34.
    The pair of eye parts responsible for admitting different amount of light in to the eyes is

    • (a) Iris and pupil
    • (b) Ciliary muscles and pupil
    • (c) Retina and Iris
    • (d) Ciliary muscles and cornea
36. 35.
    The vision defect which arises due to gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of eye lens is :

    • (a) Myopia
    • (b) Hypermetropia
    • (c) Presbyopia
    • (d) Myopia and hypermetropia both
37. 36.
    Assertion (A) : With the help of compass, magnetic field lines can be traced outside the bar magnet. Reason (R) : The north pole of a compass needle always points towards the south pole of the magnet when brought close to it. Select the appropriate option: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (B) Both Assertion (A) and…
38. 37.
    (A) A fuse in electric circuit is rated 4 A. Can it be used with an electric heater of rating 2 kW, 200 V ? Explain your answer.
39. 38.
    • (a) Define volt, the unit of potential difference.
    • (b) Calculate the work done required to move an electron between two points A and B located at a potential difference of 100 V in an electric field.
40. 39.
    • (a) Observe the given ray diagram and compare :
    • (i) the speed of light in medium A and the speed of light in medium B.
    • (ii) the optical densities of medium B and medium C.
    • (b) Draw a ray diagram for refraction where the optical density of medium 'A' becomes equal to the optical density of medium 'C' and optical density of medium 'B' is greater than the optical density of medium 'A' and medium 'C'.
41. 40.
    Explain the phenomenon of rainbow formation in the sky. Draw the labelled ray diagram in support of your explanation.
42. 41.
    On the basis of the given circuit arrangement, answer the following questions :

    • (a) What happens to the rod AB when the key K is closed and why ?
    • (b) Name and state the rule that determines this behaviour of the rod AB in the above situation.
43. 42.
    The above ray diagram is to show image formation by a reflecting telescope. Reflecting telescope revolutionized our way of looking into the sky. Reflecting telescopes employ large mirrors to gather and focus light rather than relying solely on lenses as we do in the refracting telescopes. These telescopes utilize precisely shaped and polished mirrors to capture incoming light and reflect it to a…
44. 43.
    (b) What kind of mirror is used in this reflecting telescope ?
45. 44.
    (c) Explain with the reason, what kind of optical device (type of lens or mirror) is used at the eye-piece.
46. 45.
    (A)

    • (i) The given electric circuit is a part of an electrical device. Use the information given in the electric circuit diagram to calculate : (I) Potential difference across the ends of resistor R2. (II) Value of resistor R2. (III) Value of resistor R1.
    • (ii) Write the factors on which resistance of a conductor depends and derive the formula for resistance of a given conductor.

Class 10 Science exam pattern (80 marks)

The theory paper carries 80 marks over 3 hours (39 questions, with internal choice in some). Section-wise structure:

Structure per the CBSE 2023-24 sample-paper design; question wording varies by set.

Prepare with

How to use these papers

1. 1Start chapter-wise early in the year — solve only the Science questions from a chapter you have just finished.
2. 2Switch to full timed papers 2–3 months before the exam: one complete set in the real time limit, no notes.
3. 3Self-mark against the marking scheme, then fix every mistake with our free NCERT solutions.
4. 4Re-attempt your weakest chapters until the recurring question types feel routine.

CBSE Class 10 Science 2026 paper — FAQ